Home / Sample Orderspage 463

Sample Orders

Leadership and Power Paper -content– Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper on the interaction among leaders’ sources of power, motives, and influence tactics according to the following criteria: Describe power and explain how it relates to leadership. Describe the various types of power. Describe the relationship between influence and power. Cite a minimum of three references other than the text and the white paper. PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

AMERICAN HISTORY -content– Describe how America’s regional and local markets merged into one truly national market and how this influenced the consumer demand for products and services, as well as some of the costs associated with the transition. Discuss the functioning of national, state, and local politics during the late 1800s. Describe the formation of the early labor unions in the United States, including their goals, activities, and situations at the end of the nineteenth century. Describe the evolution of urbanization and immigration in the North during the second half of the nineteenth century, and how those two factors shaped the region’s social relations, including its disparities of wealth. Evaluate what was meant by the term New South. Describe the development of the American West that took place during the second half of the nineteenth century, addressing both the role that industrialization played and the final defeat of Native American tribes on the plains. Discuss the problems that confronted America’s farmers in the North, South, and West during the late 1800s, and describe how their attempts to solve those problems led to the formation of a new political party. PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

Making Financial Business Decisions -content– You have always wanted to own a restaurant and have now decided to go into business, purchase a building, and open an Italian Bistro. The items listed below provide information regarding the purchases you will need to make to start your business. 1) The building and the land it sits on will cost $250,000 and you have 20% to put down on the property. Annual taxes are $6,000 and fire and liability insurance is $3,600. 2) You have $150,000 of additional funds to allocate for refurbishing the grounds, building structure, interior design, and kitchen. 10% of the savings will be allocated to the grounds, 20% to the building’s structure, 20% to update the interior design, and 50% for kitchen installation and fire suppression systems. 3) Tables are $200 each for 2 tops, $300 each for 4 tops, and $500 each for 6 tops. You plan to purchase eight (8) 2-top tables, six (6) 4-top tables, and ten (10) 6-top tables. Chairs cost $50 each. You are planning on being able to seat 100 people in the restaurant at a time and need 10 extra chairs. Silverware, tablecloths and napkins cost a total of $6,000, serving utensils cost a total of $3,000, and glassware cost a total of $5,000. 4) Place/plate settings cost $35 each. You need to purchase three times the number of planned seats for turn-around and breakage. (Remember you are planning for 100 people in your restaurant.) 5) Servicing carts, cooking equipment, prep tables, storage containers, and other supplies will cost a total of $16,000. 6) Research suggests that the average receipt total per person is $12.80 and the average cost per meal is $6.86 for the Italian restaurants in your area. The research also suggests that tables are turned over for new customers between 13 and 21 times a day in your area, and that restaurants have between 40% and 60% occupancy fill rate each day. You mission is to create a financial business plan explaining the initial outlay of funds this business venture will cost. Create a PowerPoint Presentation for this business venture. The following is an outline of how your slides should be presented. Slide 1: This is your title page. Include your name, project title, the course and section number and the assignment due date. Slide 2: This slide is your introduction slide. This slide should summarize your new business venture, describe your restaurant concept (i.e. casual dining, bight atmosphere, etc.) and provide other helpful information. For example, restaurant name, what types of appetizers, salads, soups, entrees, beer and wine availability, and desserts you might serve, and hours of operation. Highlight what makes you restaurant special. Slide 3:This slide should include a small picture or building plan drawing of the building, and summarize the purchase price, down payment, and amount financed. The picture of the building can be obtained from a real estate website, or from a building plan drawing available on the Internet (be sure to cite this). Also list the annual tax and insurance amounts. It should also include the monthly mortgage payment including principal, interest, taxes and insurance (PITI). The slide notes (section below the slide in PowerPoint) should contain the steps you took to calculate the monthly mortgage payment. Slide 4 to 6: These slides should include your start up expenses. On these slides you would list the cost of purchasing all of the items listed in items 3, 4, 5 above (tables, place setting, kitchen equipment, etc.).You can include pictures of items, or include graphs of the cost.List the total start up expense required to open the restaurant somewhere. Slide 7: This is your revenue slide. Create revenues and food costs from your first 6 days of serving food. Present the average receipt total per person, the average cost per meal, number of times a table is sat or turned over, and fill rate or occupancy rate to estimate your restaurants revenues. This is another place where a graph could help illustrate your revenue potential. Slide 8: Conclude your presentation with the “wrap up” of the concept and any final thoughts you might want to include. Slide 9: List any resources you have used for this project. PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

Maths -content– Find the following trig functions : 1. sin(-t)= 3/8 a) sin(t) b) csc(t) 2. cos(t)=4/5 a)cos(pie-t) b) cos(pie+t) 3. Traveling across a flat land you notice a mountain of f in the distance with an angle of evelation of 3.5degrees. You walk towards the mountain 13 more miles and now the angle of elevations is 9degrees. How tall is the mountain? 4. Find the surface area of a cone created from cutting a sector of 30degrees from a disk of radius 5in. 5. A car is moving at 65mph and the diameter of the tire is 2.5 feet a) find the number of rotations per min b) find the angular speed in radians per min PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

Accounting -content– Aubrae Company is making adjusting entries for the year ended December 31, 2014. In developing information for the adjusting entries, the accountant learned the following: a.A two-year insurance premium of $5,520 was paid on October 1, 2014, for coverage beginning on that date. b.At December 31, 2014, the following data relating to Shipping Supplies were obtained from the records and supporting documents. Shipping supplies on hand, January 1, 2014 $ 12,000 Purchases of shipping supplies during 2014 65,500 Shipping supplies on hand, counted on December 31, 2014 13,500 PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

CHEMISTRY -content– 1. Proxima Centauri is the nearest star other than or own Sun. It is located at a distance of 3.98 X 10^13 km from us. About how many minutes does it take light from Proxima Centauri to reach us? (Speed of light=3.00 X 10^8 m/s). (A) 200000000000 min. (B) 133000000 min. (C) 7960000 min. (D) 2210000 min. (E)11900000000000000000000 min. 2. What is the mass of snow (in tons) on a 150.0ft by 45.0ft flat roof after a 6.0 inch snowfall? Assume that 11 inches of snow is equivalent to 1.0 inches of water. The density of water is 1.00 g/ml. (A) 307 tons (B) 3300 tons (C) 0.010 tons (D) 9.6 tons (E) 1300 tons 3. Assuming that there are 20. Drops in 1.0 ml, how many drops are in a 5.0 quarts water cooler? (A) 95000 drops (B) 9460 drops (C) There is no correct answer is listed for this problem. (D) 94600 drops (E) 9500 drops 4. A waterbed filled with water has the dimensions 8.5ft by 7.5ft by 9.5inches. Taking the density of water to be 1.00 g/cubic centimeter, determine the number of pounds of water required to fill the water bed. (A) 3559 lbs (B) 117 lbs (C) 3500 pounds (D) 3121.97 pounds (E) 3100 or 3200 lbs (depends on the conversion factors used) 5. A chemical plant releases 5.00 tons of gas into the atmosphere each day. The gas contains 5.00% by mass of sulfur dioxide (for every 100 parts by mass of gas, 5 parts are sulfur dioxide). What mass of sulfur dioxide is released in a period of one week? (A) 1.75 tons/week (B) 0.250 tons/week (C) 700. tons/week (D) 100. tons/week (E) 5.00 tons/week 6. What volume of mercury (density=13.6 g/ml) will 0.23 grams occupy? (A) There is no correct answer listed for this problem (B) 3.2 ml (C) 59 ml (D) 0.0169 ml (E) 0.017 cubic centimeter 7. A constant used in chemistry is the gas constant, 8.314 J/K. Express the value of this constant in calories per degrees kelvin. Hint: 4.184J=1.000 calorie. (A) 1.987 cal/K (B) 0.5032 cal/K (C) There is no correct answer listed for this problem (D) 34.79 cal/K (E) 8.314 cal/K PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

Entrepreneurship questions -content– Q1. Which of the following factors acts as fuel to feed the nation’s entrepreneurial fire? a. Greater opportunities for entrepreneurial education b. The shift from an industrial economy to a service economy c. Increasingly powerful technological advancements that are available at affordable prices. d. All of the above. Q2. Bennett is considering buying a business and has collected the following information: Projected net earnings for next year = $117,000; rate of return on a similar risk investment = 27%. Hoping to use the market approach, Bennett has located three similar companies, whose stock is publicly traded. Their price-earnings ratios are 2.84, 2. 95, and 3.12. Under the market approach, how much is the business worth? a. $117,000 b. $433,333 c. $93,822 d. $347, 490 Q3. Which element of the strategic management process addresses the first question of any business venture: “What business am I in?” a. vision b. mission c. SWOT analysis d. Strategy Q4. The broad, long-range attributes that a business seeks to accomplish are called: a. goals b. objectives c. strategies d. key success factors Q5. The price paid for a business typically is ________ the terms on which the purchase was made. a. more important than b. less important than c. about as important as d. None of the above. Q6. The primary motivating force behind entrepreneurs is: a. money b. fame. c. achievement. d. recognition. Q7. __________ is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of looking at problems and opportunities. a. Innovation b. Creativity c. Entrepreneurship d. Brainstorming Q8. Which of the following statements concerning franchising is true? a. Franchise sales total more than $1 trillion. b. Franchises account for 44 percent of all retail sales. c. A new franchise opens somewhere in the world every six-and-a-half minutes d. All of the above. Q9. Which of the following should alert a potential franchisee that a franchiser is dishonest? a. Claims that the franchise contract is a standard one and that “you don’t need to read it.” b. No written documentation to support claims and promises the franchiser makes about the franchise, its operation, and its performance. c. Reluctance to provide a list of existing franchisees to talk to. d. All of the above. Q10. The balanced scorecard: a. gives managers a comprehensive view of an organization’s performance from both a financial and an operational perspective. b. operates on the premise that relying on any single measure of a company’s performance is dangerous. c. measures a company’s performance by viewing it from a financial perspective, a customer perspective, an internal business perspective, and an innovation and learning perspective. d. all of the above. Q11. Given the fact that most small companies lack the resources to reach a national or international market, many entrepreneurs choose to pursue a __________ strategy in which they specialize in meeting the needs of a specific target market segment. a. low-cost b. differentiation c. focus d. maintenance Q12. __________ are entrepreneurial couples who work together as co-owners of their business. a. Dropouts b. Copreneurs c. Castoffs d. Angels Q13. Franchise experts consider the three most important factors in franchising to be: a. training, advertising, and location. b. management expertise, financial reserves, and customer traffic. c. financing, timing, and location. d. location, location, and location. Q14. Which of the following factors plays a role in determining the rate of return used to value a business using one of the earnings approaches? a. the basic, risk-free rate of return b. an inflation premium c. the risk allowance for investing in that particular business d. all of the above Q15. Today, home-based businesses: a. are confined primarily to the traditional areas of arts and crafts. b. are booming because of their low start-up costs, flexibility, and ability to take advantage of modern technology. c. are so small that they produce negligible incomes for their owners. d. all of the above. Q16. The period of time allowed for the subconscious to reflect on information that has been gathered is called: a. marination b. reflection c. illumination d. incubation Q17. Which form of ownership has the greatest ability to attract capital? a. sole proprietorship b. partnership c. corporation d. S-corporation Q18. Bizcomp found the average sale price for small businesses across the United States was _____ times earnings. a. 15 b. 25 c. 0.05 to 0.10 d. 2.7 Q19. __________ franchising involves combining two or more complementary franchises, such as a Texaco gas station, a Burger King restaurant, and a TCBY yogurt franchise, in the same location. a. master b. conversion c. multiple-unit d. Piggyback Q20. Which of the following activities comes first in the strategic management process? a. Formulate a meaningful mission statement b. Identify the company’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. c. Identify the key factors for success in the business d. Develop a clear vision for the business. Q21. In which of the following countries is entrepreneurial activity most prevalent? a. Japan b. Germany c. Great Britain d. United States Q22. The aggregation of factors that sets a small business apart from its competitors and gives it a unique position in the market is its: a. mission b. competitive advantage c. SWOT d. Strategy Q23. Which of the following statements concerning family businesses is false? a. Family businesses account for just 10 percent of all of the companies in the United States. b. Family businesses employ 50 million people and account for over 55 percent of the nation’s GDP. c. A significant threat to family businesses comes from within: only about 30 percent of them survive to the second generation. d. All of the above. Q24. Bennett is considering buying an existing business and has collected the following information: Projected net earnings for next year = $117,000; owner’s salary = $34,000; rate of return on a similar risk investment = 27%. Using the capitalized earnings approach, how much is the business worth? a. $151,000 b. $433,333 c. $307,407 d. $40,770 Q25. A rule of thumb for valuation of a business is to offer the owner 2.7 times the company’s earnings. a. true b. false Q26. A process in which a small group of people interact with very little structure with the goal of producing a large number of ideas is called mind-mapping. a. true b. false Q27. To form a limited liability company (LLC), an entrepreneur must file articles of organization and by-laws with the state corporation commission or secretary of state. a. true b. false Q28. For years, a small, locally-owned pizza restaurant located near a university in a small town has focused on the university’s students, offering them special student discounts and free on-campus delivery. Recently, Domino’s Pizza announced its intention to open a new location in the same town so that it can sell pizza to the university students. To the locally-owned pizza restaurant, Domino’s decision represents a: a. strength b. weakness c. opportunity d. threat Q29. About 85 percent of the companies that are available for sale are: a. listed with business brokers. b. advertised in the “Businesses for Sale” section of major newspapers. c. found in the Internet. d. tucked away in the “hidden market” of companies that are for sale but are not advertised as such. Q30. Although this exit strategy is the safest path for a business owner selling out, it is also the most expensive, given the tax liability it generates for the seller. a. straight business sale b. selling a controlling interest c. selling to company employees through an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) d. selling to the seller’s children by establishing a family limited partnership Q31. An exclusive right that protects the creator of original works is called a: a. trademark b. patent c. copyright d. All of the above. Q32. A company whose owner wants to sell to her employees by establishing an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) should: a. be profitable b. have at least 15 to 20 employees c. have an annual payroll of at least $500,000 d. all of the above Q33. The QWERTYUIOP configuration so common on computer keyboards is an illustration of which barrier to creativity? a. Searching for the one “right” answer b. Blindly following the rules c. Becoming overly specialized d. Avoiding ambiguity Q34. Which of the following statements concerning core competencies is false? a. Core competencies are a unique set of capabilities that a company develops in key operational areas that allow it to vault past competitors. b. b. Small companies’ core competencies often originate from the advantages their size offers. c. Entrepreneurs must constantly change their core competencies. d. Developing core competencies does not necessarily require a company to spend a great deal of money. Q35. The most valuable financial resource any small business can have is: a. cash b. accounts receivable c. bank line of credit d. retained earnings Q36. The Uniform Franchise Offering Circular (UFOC): a. is not required from franchisers with fewer than 10 franchised outlets. b. must be checked, verified, and approved by the Federal Trade Commission before franchisers can use it. c. is designed to provide franchisees with important information about a franchise and must be given to franchisees before they sign a franchise contract or pay any money to the franchiser. d. All of the above. Q37. The best method for determining the value of a business is: a. the adjusted balance sheet technique b. the excess earnings method c. the capitalized earnings approach d. the discounted future earnings approach e. There is no “best method” of determining the value of a business. Q38. ________ is the ability to see the similarities and connections among various data and events. a. Vertical thinking b. Lateral thinking c. Convergent thinking d. Divergent thinking Q39. In most business sales, a. the buyer pays the seller 100 percent of the purchase price at the closing of the deal. b. the seller finances 100 percent of the purchase price over a 30-year time period. c. the buyer makes a down payment up front with the seller financing the remaining 30 to 80 percent of the purchase price over three to ten years. d. the actual price the buyer pays is much more important than the structure and the terms of the deal. Q40. Which of the following requirements must an S-corporation meet? a. It must be a domestic corporation. b. It can issue only one class of common stock, but it can issue voting and nonvoting shares of common stock. c. It cannot have more than 75 shareholders. d. All of the above. Q41. The basis for the global economy today is __________ capital. a. financial b. manufacturing c. intellectual d. economic Q42. Polaroid’s Creativity and Innovation Lab reports that out of every 3,000 new product ideas, __________ are actually launched, and __________ become(s) successful in the market. a. 1000; 500 b. 500; 250 c. 10; 3 d. 2; 1 Q43. In a competitive profile matrix, a factor that represents a major strength to a company would receive a rating of: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Q44. The _____ specialized a business is, the _____ the likelihood that a bargain may be found. a. more; greater b. more; lesser c. less; greater d. less; lesser Q45. __________ franchising is a system in which a franchiser provides franchisees with a complete business system, including a license for the tradename, the products or services to be sold, the physical plant, the methods of operation, a marketing plan, and other necessary business services. a. tradename b. product distribution c. pure (or business format) d. process Q46. __________ is the practice of gathering, organizing, and disseminating the collective wisdom and experience of a company’s employees for the purpose of strengthening its competitive position. a. strategic management b. differentiation c. knowledge management d. paradigm busting Q47. To validate an idea is accurate and useful, entrepreneurs may: a. conduct experiments b. run simulations c. test market d. build prototypes e. All of the above. Q48. A plant patent can be obtained: a. for the layout of a new manufacturing facility. b. extends for 20 years from the date of filing. c. only if the plant can be reproduced asexually d. None of the above. Q49. The failure rate for franchises is __________ the failure rate for independent businesses. a. lower than b. higher than c. the same as d. cannot be determined Q50. Experts estimate that __________ percent of franchisers are dishonest. a. 5 to 10 b. 15 to 20 c. 25 to 30 d. 45 to 50 PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

Delinquency Influences -content– Gangs have become increasingly more violent over time and have increased their activity in drugs and other illegal activities to support the gang and help recruit new gang members, often from U.S. middle and high schools. In this scenario, you have been asked to begin a gang initiative with a community that has suffered an increase in gang activity over time. Your police department closely follows the community policing paradigm, meaning that it has realized the importance of working with the community as a whole to resolve long-term problems that have often stymied efforts led only by the police in the past. Recently, one of these community groups came to you, as police chief, and asked that you respond to what it feels is an increasingly dangerous gang problem in the community. There have been several serious incidents of violence and drive-by shootings, along with the increase in drug traffic and attempts to gain new gang members in your local middle and high schools. You recognize that increasing patrols and arrests in the area will only solve the problem short term or perhaps just displace the problem, so you want to seek a more long-term solution. For this assignment, your police department has picked you to write an action plan that addresses this problem in the community. Your action plan should include, but is not limited to, the following: Several initiatives that will assist in rectifying the problems, including the following: Educational initiatives Local initiatives How can the negative effects of violence on children be lessened? Do you believe that there should be a limitation on the violent video games children are permitted to play? What type of assistance will you ask from the community as a whole? What role will the department itself take? How will you measure the effectiveness of your plan? PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

Management multichoice questions -content– Q1. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost. a. true b. false Q2. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid. a. true b. false Q3. If review of a project’s status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is: a. On budget, behind schedule b. On budget, ahead of schedule c. Over budget, behind schedule d. Over budget, ahead of schedule Q4. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that: a. Team members are full of ego b. Team members are selected from the same functional area c. Team members have divided loyalties d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers Q5. A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of: a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control b. b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control Q6. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results. a. true b. false Q7. Bottom-up estimates: a. Are based on historical trends b. Can be derived from the WBS c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation d. a and c Q8. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is: a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant d. To re-baseline the project budget Q9. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates): a. Are based on historical trends b. Can be derived from the WBS c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs Q10. Which of the following is an elapsed time task? a. Paint is drying b. A painter paints the wall c. Software is being written d. A sandwich is being made Q11. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project’s schedule. a. true b. false Q12. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest. a. true b. false Q13. The poor man’s hierarchy is a method for: a. Project estimation b. Project scheduling c. WBS construction d. Project selection Q14. An autocratic management style: a. Is effective in most project management situations b. Is effective in highly routine efforts c. Is effective in high flux, state-of-the-art projects d. Will lead to the tyranny of the majority Q15. The bottom-most level of the WBS — the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured — is called: a. Work package b. Code of accounts c. Budget baseline d. Change control level Q16. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization. a. true b. false Q17. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can: a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project b. Show how many resources will be used on the project c. Show the interdependencies of tasks d. Show actual versus planned schedule status Q18. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is: a. Staff empowerment b. Technical requirements of the project c. Theory X management principles d. Theory Y management principles Q19. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as: a. Egoless b. Specialty c. Surgical d. Isomorphic Q20. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan. a. true b. false Q21. Good functional requirements a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do d. Are created after development of the technical specifications Q22. Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle. a. true b. false Q23. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system? a. SMART b. KISS c. MBO d. LOWBALLING Q24. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of: a. Scope statement definition b. WBS construction c. Rapid prototyping d. Configuration management Q25. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel? a. Crashing b. Fast tracking c. Leveling d. Hammocking Q26. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves. a. true b. false Q27. In risk management, insurance is an example of: a. Risk avoidance b. Risk deflection c. Risk acceptance d. Contingency planning Q28. If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must: a. Shorten the critical path b. Shorten the free float c. Spend more money d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool? a. Benefit/cost analysis b. WBS c. Earned Value analysis d. Fast tracking Q30. A work package is to be found at the summary level of the WBS. a. true b. false Q31. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have? a. 0.5 hours b. 1.5 hours c. 2.5 hours d. 8.5 hours Q32. An effective project manager must: a. Tell his team members what to do b. Be the most capable person on the team technically c. Be focused on achieving results d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail Q33. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that: a. It only focuses on things that can be measured b. It takes time frame into consideration c. It is too much based on subjective judgment d. It does not entail prioritizing Q34. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on a. Tasks b. Deliverables c. Interrelationships among activities d. Cost of the project Q35. Scope creep means: a. Needs emergence and identification b. Uncontrolled changes to a project’s requirements during project execution c. Migration of project needs to requirements d. Imprecise scope statement Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame. a. true b. false Q37. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request? a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources c. If the request is coming from a valued customer d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer Q38. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications. a. true b. false Q39. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty. a. true b. false Q40. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests. a. true b. false PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

HOMEWORK -content– 1 Given a social problem such as homelessness, use sociological imagination to interpret the problem, assess possible solutions, and illustrate how a social scientist may view this issue in a cultural context. 2 Given a hypothesis such as, “Using a cell phone while driving is as dangerous as driving under the influence,” apply the scientific method and use appropriate scientific techniques in refining the hypothesis, applying operational definitions, and selecting the appropriate research method for validating the hypothesis. 3 Given a social issue or case study involving an applied sociological situation, such as the current state of the educational, prison, health care or public assistance system in a state or province, analyze the situation from the major sociological, theoretical perspectives, determine if one theory seems more applicable to this issue than another, and provide basic guidelines for improving the system. 4 Given a sample reading, such as Lois Lowry’s The Giver (1993), or a film such as Avatar, analyze the meaning of culture within society and demonstrate how the concepts of culture and society are inseparable. 5 Given a case study dealing with issues of the interactions of ethnic or racial groups within social organizations, identify areas of social stratification, discrimination, differentiate between racial and ethnic groups, illustrate stereotypes and analyze these interactions based on the cultural characteristics of the groups within the case study. 6 Given the changing demographics of the United States and the globalization of markets, compare and contrast cultural differences and illustrate their impact on providing services to members of different cultures, especially non-dominant populations in the United States. 7 Given a case study on a multicultural issue other than race and ethnicity, such as the aging North American population, changing family forms, marriage equality, undocumented workers, the location of religious houses of worship, etc., analyze this issue in the context of a subgroup within a larger “normative” population and evaluate the extent to which the subgroup fits in with society’s overall norms. 8 Given a film involving a multicultural issue or issues, such as Higher Learning, A Class Divided, or Do the Right Thing, extrapolate at least three major and two minor sociological concepts and demonstrate in a well written essay how these concepts are sociologically related through the film’s storyline. PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

Read More »

WPMessenger