Management multichoice questions -content– Q1. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost. a. true b. false Q2. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid. a. true b. false Q3. If review of a project’s status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is: a. On budget, behind schedule b. On budget, ahead of schedule c. Over budget, behind schedule d. Over budget, ahead of schedule Q4. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that: a. Team members are full of ego b. Team members are selected from the same functional area c. Team members have divided loyalties d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers Q5. A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of: a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control b. b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control Q6. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results. a. true b. false Q7. Bottom-up estimates: a. Are based on historical trends b. Can be derived from the WBS c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation d. a and c Q8. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is: a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant d. To re-baseline the project budget Q9. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates): a. Are based on historical trends b. Can be derived from the WBS c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs Q10. Which of the following is an elapsed time task? a. Paint is drying b. A painter paints the wall c. Software is being written d. A sandwich is being made Q11. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project’s schedule. a. true b. false Q12. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest. a. true b. false Q13. The poor man’s hierarchy is a method for: a. Project estimation b. Project scheduling c. WBS construction d. Project selection Q14. An autocratic management style: a. Is effective in most project management situations b. Is effective in highly routine efforts c. Is effective in high flux, state-of-the-art projects d. Will lead to the tyranny of the majority Q15. The bottom-most level of the WBS — the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured — is called: a. Work package b. Code of accounts c. Budget baseline d. Change control level Q16. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization. a. true b. false Q17. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can: a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project b. Show how many resources will be used on the project c. Show the interdependencies of tasks d. Show actual versus planned schedule status Q18. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is: a. Staff empowerment b. Technical requirements of the project c. Theory X management principles d. Theory Y management principles Q19. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as: a. Egoless b. Specialty c. Surgical d. Isomorphic Q20. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan. a. true b. false Q21. Good functional requirements a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do d. Are created after development of the technical specifications Q22. Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle. a. true b. false Q23. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system? a. SMART b. KISS c. MBO d. LOWBALLING Q24. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of: a. Scope statement definition b. WBS construction c. Rapid prototyping d. Configuration management Q25. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel? a. Crashing b. Fast tracking c. Leveling d. Hammocking Q26. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves. a. true b. false Q27. In risk management, insurance is an example of: a. Risk avoidance b. Risk deflection c. Risk acceptance d. Contingency planning Q28. If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must: a. Shorten the critical path b. Shorten the free float c. Spend more money d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool? a. Benefit/cost analysis b. WBS c. Earned Value analysis d. Fast tracking Q30. A work package is to be found at the summary level of the WBS. a. true b. false Q31. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have? a. 0.5 hours b. 1.5 hours c. 2.5 hours d. 8.5 hours Q32. An effective project manager must: a. Tell his team members what to do b. Be the most capable person on the team technically c. Be focused on achieving results d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail Q33. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that: a. It only focuses on things that can be measured b. It takes time frame into consideration c. It is too much based on subjective judgment d. It does not entail prioritizing Q34. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on a. Tasks b. Deliverables c. Interrelationships among activities d. Cost of the project Q35. Scope creep means: a. Needs emergence and identification b. Uncontrolled changes to a project’s requirements during project execution c. Migration of project needs to requirements d. Imprecise scope statement Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame. a. true b. false Q37. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request? a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources c. If the request is coming from a valued customer d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer Q38. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications. a. true b. false Q39. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty. a. true b. false Q40. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests. a. true b. false PLACE THIS ORDER OR A SIMILAR ORDER WITH US TODAY AND GET A GOOD DISCOUNT

2016-09-21